Brain CAS-005 Exam, PDF CAS-005 Cram Exam

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CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Security Engineering: This section measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that involve troubleshooting common issues related to identity and access management (IAM) components within an enterprise environment. Candidates will analyze requirements to enhance endpoint and server security while implementing hardware security technologies. This domain also emphasizes the importance of advanced cryptographic concepts in securing systems.
Topic 2	Security Operations: This domain is designed for CompTIA security architects and covers analyzing data to support monitoring and response activities, as well as assessing vulnerabilities and recommending solutions to reduce attack surfaces. Candidates will apply threat-hunting techniques and utilize threat intelligence concepts to enhance operational security.
Topic 3	Security Architecture: This domain focuses on analyzing requirements to design resilient systems, including the configuration of firewalls and intrusion detection systems.
Topic 4	Governance, Risk, and Compliance: This section of the exam measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that cover the implementation of governance components based on organizational security requirements, including developing policies, procedures, and standards. Candidates will learn about managing security programs, including awareness training on phishing and social engineering.

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CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q102-Q107):

NEW QUESTION # 102
A company updates its cloud-based services by saving infrastructure code in a remote repository.
The code is automatically deployed into the development environment every time the code is saved to the repository. The developers express concern that the deployment often fails, citing minor code issues and occasional security control check failures in the development environment.
Which of the following should a security engineer recommend to reduce the deployment failures?
(Choose two.)

A. Pipeline compliance scanning
B. Pre-commit code linting
C. Repository branch protection
D. Code submit authorization workflow
E. Software composition analysis
F. Automated regression testing

Answer: B,F

NEW QUESTION # 103
Within a SCADA a business needs access to the historian server in order together metric about the functionality of the environment. Which of the following actions should be taken to address this requirement?

A. Isolating the historian server for connections only from The SCADA environment
B. Adding the business workstations to the SCADA domain
C. Publishing the C$ share from SCADA to the enterprise
D. Deploying a screened subnet between 11 and SCADA

Answer: A

Explanation:
The best action to address the requirement of accessing the historian server within a SCADA system is to isolate the historian server for connections only from the SCADA environment.
Security and Isolation: Isolating the historian server ensures that only authorized devices within the SCADA environment can connect to it. This minimizes the attack surface and protects sensitive data from unauthorized access.
Access Control: By restricting access to the historian server to only SCADA devices, the organization can better control and monitor interactions, ensuring that only legitimate queries and data retrievals occur.
Best Practices for Critical Infrastructure: Following the principle of least privilege, isolating critical components like the historian server is a standard practice in securing SCADA systems, reducing the risk of cyberattacks.

NEW QUESTION # 104
A company's security policy states that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released A recent llS zero-day vulnerability was discovered that affects all versions of the Windows Server OS:

Which of the following hosts should a security analyst patch first once a patch is available?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5

Answer: C

Explanation:
Based on the security policy that any publicly available server must be patched within 12 hours after a patch is released, the security analyst should patch Host 1 first. Here's why:
Public Availability: Host 1 is externally available, making it accessible from the internet. Publicly available servers are at higher risk of being targeted by attackers, especially when a zero-day vulnerability is known.
Exposure to Threats: Host 1 has IIS installed and is publicly accessible, increasing its exposure to potential exploitation. Patching this host first reduces the risk of a successful attack.
Prioritization of Critical Assets: According to best practices, assets that are exposed to higher risks should be prioritized for patching to mitigate potential threats promptly.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
NIST Special Publication 800-40: Guide to Enterprise Patch Management Technologies CIS Controls: Control 3 - Continuous Vulnerability Management

NEW QUESTION # 105
A mobile device hardware manufacturer receives the following requirements from a company that wants to produce and sell a new mobile platform:
- The platform should store biometric data.
- The platform should prevent unapproved firmware from being loaded.
- A tamper-resistant, hardware-based counter should track if unapproved firmware was loaded.
Which of the following should the hardware manufacturer implement? (Select three).

A. SED
B. Shell restriction
C. ASLR
D. SELinux
E. NX
F. Secure enclave
G. eFuse
H. Secure boot

Answer: F,G,H

Explanation:
To meet the mobile platform security requirements, the manufacturer should implement the following technologies:
eFuse: This hardware feature helps track and prevent unauthorized firmware by physically
"blowing" fuses to record events, such as firmware tampering, making it impossible to revert to older, unapproved firmware.
Secure boot: This ensures that only trusted and authorized firmware can be loaded during the boot process, preventing malicious or unauthorized software from running.
Secure enclave: A secure enclave is used to store sensitive information like biometric data in a hardware-isolated environment, protecting it from tampering or unauthorized access.
These three solutions provide the tamper resistance, secure firmware validation, and protection of sensitive data required for the platform.

NEW QUESTION # 106
An analyst wants to conduct a risk assessment on a new application that is being deployed.
Given the following information:
- Total budget allocation for the new application is unavailable.
- Recovery time objectives have not been set.
- Downtime loss calculations cannot be provided.
Which of the following statements describes the reason a qualitative assessment is the best option?

A. An organizational risk register tracks all risks and mitigations across business units.
B. The analyst has previous work experience in application development.
C. Sufficient metrics are not available to conduct other risk assessment types.
D. The organization wants to find the monetary value of any outages.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 107
......

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BRAIN CAS-005 EXAM, PDF CAS-005 CRAM EXAM

Brain CAS-005 Exam, PDF CAS-005 Cram Exam